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So as some of you know (I posted earlier) I was prescribed Lorazepam (generic Ativan). Smallest dose .5mg. Breaking them in half does pretty much nothing for me....especially if performing (work related). I took .35 yesterday and still felt nothing. I'm not going to jump the gun, but my question is this....is it seen as better and/or safer if .5 of Ativan would work well rather than having to take like 2mg of Lorazepam for me to feel something? Is there higher addiction potential to the Lorazepam in this case since I would be taking a higher dose for effect? I have a feeling it's going to take me at least 1-2mg before I really start feeling relief or lorazepam....and if Ativan works at .5, would it be a better idea to switch since that would be effective at a lower dosage?

I'm really just using those two as examples, I hope the concept of what I'm asking is clear. It always seems to me that more effective results on lower doses is the better option. But if Ativan is more potent, then does it really make a difference if that works at .5, or a less potent works at 2mg? (mostly asking for safety, addiction, more long term effectiveness without having to up the dosage. Seems like a less potent drug has a lot more potential to have the dosage raised more frequently to keep getting results.).
so basically that table treats generics as if they are the exact same thing as the new meds. On that table, Ativan and Lorazepam were the same thing....Klonopin and Clonazepam were the same...etc. So if Lorazepam isn't giving me good results, then it's safe to say that Ativan would give me the exact same results? That seems a bit fishy...





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