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Hey spineys i am going to repost what i have been reported per dr. see if anyone can make sense of this and refresh my memory as the Rheumy said it might be this and others say it's not(dr.s)
MRI: Findings:06/25/07 MRI Lumbar Spine without Contrast : Transitional Element at Lumbosacral Junction is felt to Represent a Partially Sacralized L5 with a broad Transverse Process on the leg(where pain is)Left forming Anomlous Articulation with the upper Sacrum. No Lumbar Disc Herniation, spinal Stenosis(but yet Neurosurgeon said i did per examination) or root compression.( I believe this is the extra vertabre?)
Single are bone scan 09/08/2006:Findings: Comparison made with plain films on the Sacroliac joints dated 08/3/06: The Anterior images Demonstrate Subtle Increased Activity Anterior Aspect of the Left SI Joint. In the review of the plain films(wich i'm guessing is what was done with Flouoscopic injection) this Corresponds to Transitional L5-S1 Segment , with Partial Sacralization on the left. The subtle increased activity probably corresponds to Pseudoarthrosis of the transitional segemnt at L5-S1 on the left? There is only mild activity at this location, and this is not clearly pathologic. However, this could be a source of pain???

MRI of Lumbar Spine without Contrast:2/24/06Finding:
There is partial sacralization of the fifth lumbar vertabral body. The left transverse process of L5 contacts the left sacrum Spinal canal demonstrates anterior epidural fat from L4-L5 down into the sacral region.
Hope anyone can give some advice?

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