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The long story short is that two years ago I had unprotected sex with a girl (the only time I ever have). Not too long afterwards, I had what may have been initial genital herpes outbreak symptoms. At that same time, I was taking amoxicillin for a sinus infection. One of the two caused several small, painless scabs (not blisters) to form on my penis head, as well as an itchy rash on my buttocks. Campus medical advised that it was likely a rare side effect to the amoxicillin and took me off it. The scabs and rash went away very shortly afterwards, the rash leaving a small scar still there today.

Anyway, until two weeks ago I never even considered that those symptoms may have been herpes, and always brushed them off as drug side effects. I have not had any symptoms since, but it kind of freaked me out. I got tested, and my results came back as:

Type 1/2 IGG: 0.15 (Negative)
Type 1/2 IGM: 0.96 (positive / intermediate)

Everything I've read online said to basically disregard the IGM test. My question though is
that, if was infected two years ago, wouldn't the IGG test have come back positive? I'm checking with my doctor on Monday, but I'm just looking to ease my mind a bit before then.

Thanks for any help.

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